Had an "initial OB" on mar 2009 (9 weeks after vaginal sex with partner A, 2 weeks after oral/vaginal sex with partner B). Bilateral, widespread sores that looked like canker sores. Got flu symptoms, but they had subsided before I spotted the sores. Doctor said it wasn't a typical initial outbreak (too widespread, she said) and that incubation period was not right, but gave me Famvir anyway. The “OB” lasted 1.5 weeks tops.
5 days after onset I had a PCR swab (one from a lesion, another from the cervix) -> negative for HSV. I was not on antivirals.
2 weeks after onset, I tested HSV1+, HSV2- (glycoprotein based test). And I've been getting the same result since then. Last exam was on June 2010. I'm not on suppressive therapy.
The problem is that I had "two recurrences". (a) Jan 2010, a open sore next to my hairline in labia majora (dermatologist said it healed too quick to be herpes, said it could have been foliculitis (folliculitis) - healed completely in 5 days); (b) Jun 2010, consisting of two ulcers - one in left labia minora and other in majora - confirmed by a GYN, lasted a week. Coincidence or not, all my "obs" happened right after an episode of sore throat.
Apart from that, I frequently experience muscle fasciculation in my legs, buttocks and groins (prodomes?).
As you can notice, I'm having trouble trying to understand what's going on: Genital HSV1, HSV2 or none of them. Both my partners tested 4 months after our encounter - partner A (one-time partner) tested negative for HSV IgG using one of those antigen based tests but there's a rumor about one of his former partners having gherpes (not confirmed by him); partner B (6-year partner) tested HSV1+ HSV2-, has no history of noticeble cold sores. Both partners showed me their results.
I don't have access to WB. I'll certainly try the PCR swab again, but in the meantime, from your experience, what should I make of all this? My doctor says I have herpes, but it seems like there's a conjecture of improbabilities in my case. .
